By quoting "Gambler fallacy"
You are like saying that the probability of 11 consecutive no-hit
and 16 consecutive no-hit are the same. How can I be?
Gambler fallacy is just true for short-run if I understand it correctly.
The larger the sample size (spins) the more the outcome match to the expected statistical value calculated.
Should it be waiting longer be better? Coz the sample size nearly doubled.
You are like saying that the probability of 11 consecutive no-hit
and 16 consecutive no-hit are the same. How can I be?
Gambler fallacy is just true for short-run if I understand it correctly.
The larger the sample size (spins) the more the outcome match to the expected statistical value calculated.
Should it be waiting longer be better? Coz the sample size nearly doubled.